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What exactly are the lawful implications if a single co-operator would like to sell their share of a jointly owned property without the consent of the opposite co-house owners? The doctrine of musha has been topic to much criticism. It's been mentioned which the doctrine is “wholly unad

There's no have to have for a formal physical departure or official entry of property. But there has to be the bona fide intention in the donor with the transfer of property. In the situation of ? A co-operator features a ideal to compel the others to share inside the bills of preservation, r